It seems to me that arguing from the definition “what is moral is what one ought to do” obscures important issues.From the definition of morality in the SEP provided by Bernard Gert (which I take to be a sincere effort at even handedness regarding the relevant issues) with my addition of 1A to include results from the study of morality using the methods of objective, but merely descriptive, science:I assume that the over 50% of academic moral philosophers you referred to who claim there is an objective morality are claiming that there actually is a basis for “a code of conduct that, given specified conditions, would be put forward by all rational persons” and therefore, that morality is objective. What do you mean by moral “binding” if it is not the same as an obligation?Finally, the objective ultimate source of morality (which we have agreed is real) DOES provide an objective standard against which to rate people’s acts — is the act consistent with strategies that overcome the cooperation/exploitation dilemma or not.But to me that is the naturalistic fallacy in spades! … We decide for ourselves what is right.No, the idea that there is no objective moral right or wrong is not the same as saying that we get to decide what is objectively right or wrong.… how, exactly is this possible without free will?Advancing morality is possible through us thinking about what we want, what sort of society we would prefer to live in. Big difference. Instinct is the moral code born in us; survival is its supreme value. Even then the “liking” would be subjective. How do we interpret “moral obligation” except as about bindingness? I think that morality must be more than merely a matter of taste.Or: “I/we ought to act according to the way I/we think if I/we wish to act in accordance with the way I/we think.” This seems to be no less tautological.Yes, that sentence is tautological. Those philosophers are asking for objective bindingness. Morality is taught by those with intelligence. It is:… acts that forcefully control others are assumptions, so therefore are less true in reality ….The “are less true in reality” simply does not follow from “acts that forcefully control others are assumptions”.
The new science of morality might sound impressive to those mesmerised by science but is it really new? Well, you can, and you have, but there’s little point. What they don’t realise, though, is that you also can’t have an objective morality with a god. I interpret “the purpose of life” to mean an ultimate binding purpose which, if you do not pursue, you are either objectively wrong or a bad person or both. If all we have for the validity of these moral claims is the say-so of Buddhist practitioners, then that does not suggest that the validity is objective.“OK, can you, then, give an example moral claim, and show how it is arrived at without any reference to human opinion?
They would be making the leap from “Morality has an objective function, but I don’t accept that function as defining morality” to the hopelessly confused “Morality is binding regardless of human needs and preferences because there is an objective function of morality that I reject.”.Ok, but what if they (religious people, Kantianists, Utilitarians, or virtue ethicists) accept the objective function of morality as defining morality. Without objective morality, there opinion carries the SAME weight as anyone who finds that repulsive. To do the opposite would further ourselves or distance ourselves from reality or the truth.Truth value differential established concerning distinct human interactions.I still think that your whole argument is misconceived and based on very weird use of language. Where do these "moral spheres" or "primary colours of our moral sense" come from? Now you are saying moral truth has nothing to do with factual truth, then why do we use truth value terms?Fact means pertaining to the truth or reality of a thing, an honest observation. You just wouldn’t do it. We did! The problem is that if these proponents try to stop (enforcement) the objective morality, then they are using objective motivations to stop objectivity. If all we have for the validity of these moral claims is the say-so of Buddhist practitioners, then that does not suggest that the validity is objective.”.I see your objection but there is a crucial issue here. A secondary claim is an assumption “you partial control me”, well, maybe you could but maybe you wont.I also think it reasonable to conclude a primary claim of control (obvious fact) wins out over a secondary claim of control (assumption).Its fair to say secondary control is a less true or a lesser correct position, so the question is, can a more correct position correct a less correct position? [Hops off dead beaten horse],You can not be talking about morality because by definition its to do with the correctness of behavior towards others, ….I assert that morality is not about objective “correctness” of behaviour, it is to do with subjective opinions about behaviour. As Isis thinks murdering and torture, rape and crucifying children is just great. Indeed, if something actually happens, then it is true that it happens. Nor is it objective is the sense that the physical properties of water are objective. No, it does not commit the naturalistic fallacy because no claim about ‘oughts’ is made. That much we agree on.”.So if I use my actions to control me only, my actions are based on a position of truth as your statement suggests.
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